USMLE STEP 2 Question of the Day 11

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Subscribe for daily Step 2 questions and more medical education content! • Correct Answer: C. Thrombolytic Therapy • Topic: Neuro • • Explanation: • C. Thrombolytic therapy is correct because it is the most appropriate initial management for a patient with suspected acute pulmonary embolism (PE) who is hemodynamically unstable. Hemodynamic instability (e.g., hypotension, shock) indicates a massive PE, where immediate clot dissolution is crucial to restore blood flow and improve survival. Thrombolytic agents (e.g., alteplase) can rapidly dissolve the clot, which can be life-saving in such critical situations. • Why the other options are incorrect: • A. Intravenous heparin: While intravenous heparin is an important anticoagulant for treating PE, it does not provide the immediate clot dissolution needed in hemodynamically unstable patients. Heparin prevents further clot formation but does not break down existing clots quickly. • B. Oral warfarin: Oral warfarin is not suitable for initial management of acute PE, especially in hemodynamically unstable patients. Warfarin takes several days to achieve therapeutic anticoagulation, making it ineffective for immediate clot dissolution. • D. Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH): LMWH is used for anticoagulation in stable patients with PE, but similar to intravenous heparin, it does not provide the rapid clot breakdown needed for immediate stabilization in patients with hemodynamic instability. Thrombolytic therapy is preferred in these critical situations. • • Tags: #usmlestudents #usmle #step1 #step1prep #step2 #nbme #usmleprep #usmlepreparation #usmlestep1review #usmlestep #usmleexams #med #meded #medicalschool #medicaleducation #medicalexam #medical #medicalstudent #questionoftheday #qotd #qbank #freestepstudying #viralreels #viralshorts #viralshortvideo #internalmedicine #im #internalmed #neuro #neurology #anticoagualtion #heme #pulmonaryembolism #pe #clot

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